Starfire2004
08-30-2004, 06:53 PM
My husband is 59 and I am 52 years old. We were married 3 1/2 years ago (2nd marriage for both of us)....and we just got our bankruptcy discharged on April 30th of this year. (both of us got burnt bad in our divorces, and my husband was airlifted with a major heart attack a day and a half after we got married....with no insurance, etc etc etc.....). I guess all of us have a reason we had to file......
Anyway, we made use of all three credit report agencies in helping us make sure we had listed all of our debts.
Now, last Saturday we receive a letter from a collection agency representing Pacific Bell. It was an attempt to collect a debt, and I am sure most of the total amount consisted of finance charges and late fees. But the thing is....my husband moved away from California clear back in 1998. He moved to Illinois at that time. In all the years since he has been away from California, he didn't ONCE receive any bill from Pacific Bell and was totally unaware of the debt until this past Saturday when we received the first (and only ) bill from the collection agency. Also, in the 6 years he has been away from California, why didn't the debt ever appear on a credit report.
But anyway, here is my question.....I called my lawyre's office and the secretary said all we had to do is send this company a copy of the notice of our hearing, a copy of the bankruptcy discharge, and a copy of what Pacific Bell sent US, and it should take care of it.
Well, is that true? I mean, it was never listed as one of the debts!
The lawyer's secretary says it makes no difference because ours was a no asset bankruptcy and we had made an honest attempt to include all debt.
Would someone confirm that this debt is also wiped out for us? We are really worried about it.
Also, if it is indeed forgiven, it will not mar our credit record from anything AFTER the discharge date, right?
Anyway, we made use of all three credit report agencies in helping us make sure we had listed all of our debts.
Now, last Saturday we receive a letter from a collection agency representing Pacific Bell. It was an attempt to collect a debt, and I am sure most of the total amount consisted of finance charges and late fees. But the thing is....my husband moved away from California clear back in 1998. He moved to Illinois at that time. In all the years since he has been away from California, he didn't ONCE receive any bill from Pacific Bell and was totally unaware of the debt until this past Saturday when we received the first (and only ) bill from the collection agency. Also, in the 6 years he has been away from California, why didn't the debt ever appear on a credit report.
But anyway, here is my question.....I called my lawyre's office and the secretary said all we had to do is send this company a copy of the notice of our hearing, a copy of the bankruptcy discharge, and a copy of what Pacific Bell sent US, and it should take care of it.
Well, is that true? I mean, it was never listed as one of the debts!
The lawyer's secretary says it makes no difference because ours was a no asset bankruptcy and we had made an honest attempt to include all debt.
Would someone confirm that this debt is also wiped out for us? We are really worried about it.
Also, if it is indeed forgiven, it will not mar our credit record from anything AFTER the discharge date, right?