Hi, HHM
I finally found a case quite similar to ours: Linda Lorraine Pilcher v. Hemar Service Corporation of America, Inc., Unfortunately, the case was reversed and remanded.
"We hold that the partial funding requirements for the applicability of 523(a)(8) is met; therefore we REVERSE the granting of summary judgment to Pilcher and the denial of summary judgment to HEMAR insurance. We REMAND for further proceedings on the issue of whether a hardship exists for purposes of 523(a)(8)."
The difference between our cases is that even though both private educational loans were based on credit worthiness and serviced through non--profit agencies on behalf of the lenders, Pilcher's loans were insured by a third party (HEMAR Insurance Corporation of America later sold to Student Loan Marketing Assn.), but ours was guaranteed by a co-signer. When it says insured does that mean guaranteed as well? I want to make sure I understand the meaning of these terms.
Pilcher's lender, Norwest Bank, argued that it would have been impossible for them to participate in the loan program had there not been a non profit guarantee agency such as Higher Education Assistance Foundation to fund the program. Without this substancial funding by HEAF, the educational loans available under the loan program would not have been available to students.
It make sense, but in our case, under the private loan program in which we belong it didn't require any funding from any non-profit agencies (none that I know of). The loans were provided by the bank which is sent to the non-profit servicing center, then to the school, then disbursed to us in check as needed. Although I understand that it's not about the specific loan, but the program as a whole is in question. My point is our lender could still have lent us the money even if they were not part of the loan program unlike Pilcher's case. Do I make sense?
My questions is this: is it possible that even though the guarantee of the loan is the co-signer, could the loan also be insured by a third party unknowingly? I don't see anything on the promisary note that says insured but only guaranteed by the co-signer.
Thank you again for all your help, HHM. I appreciate it very much.
I finally found a case quite similar to ours: Linda Lorraine Pilcher v. Hemar Service Corporation of America, Inc., Unfortunately, the case was reversed and remanded.
"We hold that the partial funding requirements for the applicability of 523(a)(8) is met; therefore we REVERSE the granting of summary judgment to Pilcher and the denial of summary judgment to HEMAR insurance. We REMAND for further proceedings on the issue of whether a hardship exists for purposes of 523(a)(8)."
The difference between our cases is that even though both private educational loans were based on credit worthiness and serviced through non--profit agencies on behalf of the lenders, Pilcher's loans were insured by a third party (HEMAR Insurance Corporation of America later sold to Student Loan Marketing Assn.), but ours was guaranteed by a co-signer. When it says insured does that mean guaranteed as well? I want to make sure I understand the meaning of these terms.
Pilcher's lender, Norwest Bank, argued that it would have been impossible for them to participate in the loan program had there not been a non profit guarantee agency such as Higher Education Assistance Foundation to fund the program. Without this substancial funding by HEAF, the educational loans available under the loan program would not have been available to students.
It make sense, but in our case, under the private loan program in which we belong it didn't require any funding from any non-profit agencies (none that I know of). The loans were provided by the bank which is sent to the non-profit servicing center, then to the school, then disbursed to us in check as needed. Although I understand that it's not about the specific loan, but the program as a whole is in question. My point is our lender could still have lent us the money even if they were not part of the loan program unlike Pilcher's case. Do I make sense?
My questions is this: is it possible that even though the guarantee of the loan is the co-signer, could the loan also be insured by a third party unknowingly? I don't see anything on the promisary note that says insured but only guaranteed by the co-signer.
Thank you again for all your help, HHM. I appreciate it very much.

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