Assume a house valued at $500,000 with a $250,000 mortgage for which a foreclosure suit has been filed.
Obviously, refinancing the mortgage is one way to stop the foreclosure. Does the fact that the refinanced mortgage would only amount to 50% of the total house value mean that refinancing would be relatively easier to get at a lower interest rate than if a, say, 80% mortgage were needed?
Obviously, refinancing the mortgage is one way to stop the foreclosure. Does the fact that the refinanced mortgage would only amount to 50% of the total house value mean that refinancing would be relatively easier to get at a lower interest rate than if a, say, 80% mortgage were needed?
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