I went to a lawyer today for a review and he stated that because the house my husband and I owned was sold less then four years ago,and we bought a new house in just his name that it wouldn't be advisable to claim any type of bankruptcy. The lawyer says that even though it asks on paper if you have owned any property in the last year that the trustee might ask in the 341 about the last 4 years and that I would be under oath and that if I lied that it would be perjury. Is this true
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