Starfire2004
09-01-2004, 04:14 PM
My husband is 59 and I am 52 years old. We were married 3 1/2 years ago (2nd marriage for both of us)....and we just got our bankruptcy discharged(the one that wipes out everything...I forget if it's chapter 7 or 13... haha) on April 30th of this year.
Anyway, we made use of all three credit report agencies in helping us make sure we had listed all of our debts.
Last Saturday we receive a letter from a collection agency in California......regarding a bill we knew nothing about.
It was an attempt to collect a debt, and I am sure most of the total amount consisted of finance charges and late fees. But the thing is....my husband moved away from California clear back in 1998. In all the years since he has been away from California, he didn't ONCE receive any bill and was totally unaware of the debt until this past Saturday when we received the first (and only ) bill and then it was from the collection agency. Also, why didn't the debt ever appear on a credit report after all these years? Had it been on the credit report, we would certainly have listed it as one of our debts.
But anyway, here is my question.....I called my lawyer's office and the secretary said all we had to do is send this agency a copy of the notice of our hearing, a copy of the bankruptcy discharge, and the bill the agency sent us, and it should take care of it.
Would someone tell me if this is correct? I mean, it was never listed as one of the debts!
The lawyer's secretary says it makes no difference because ours was a no asset bankruptcy and we had made an honest attempt to include all debt.
However, I had always heard that if you fail to list a debt, it is your responsibility to get it paid.
Would someone confirm that this debt would be wiped out for us? We are really worried about it.
Also, if it WOULD be wiped out, would fdit be listed in the credit report as activity AFTE Rthe bankruptcy? We are trying like heck to build up our credit and don't want any negative marks on the credit report after the bankruptcy discharge date.
If anyone knows how this works...PLEASE respond![/FONT]
Anyway, we made use of all three credit report agencies in helping us make sure we had listed all of our debts.
Last Saturday we receive a letter from a collection agency in California......regarding a bill we knew nothing about.
It was an attempt to collect a debt, and I am sure most of the total amount consisted of finance charges and late fees. But the thing is....my husband moved away from California clear back in 1998. In all the years since he has been away from California, he didn't ONCE receive any bill and was totally unaware of the debt until this past Saturday when we received the first (and only ) bill and then it was from the collection agency. Also, why didn't the debt ever appear on a credit report after all these years? Had it been on the credit report, we would certainly have listed it as one of our debts.
But anyway, here is my question.....I called my lawyer's office and the secretary said all we had to do is send this agency a copy of the notice of our hearing, a copy of the bankruptcy discharge, and the bill the agency sent us, and it should take care of it.
Would someone tell me if this is correct? I mean, it was never listed as one of the debts!
The lawyer's secretary says it makes no difference because ours was a no asset bankruptcy and we had made an honest attempt to include all debt.
However, I had always heard that if you fail to list a debt, it is your responsibility to get it paid.
Would someone confirm that this debt would be wiped out for us? We are really worried about it.
Also, if it WOULD be wiped out, would fdit be listed in the credit report as activity AFTE Rthe bankruptcy? We are trying like heck to build up our credit and don't want any negative marks on the credit report after the bankruptcy discharge date.
If anyone knows how this works...PLEASE respond![/FONT]