Here to be a pest again. This occured to me last night, and I need to float the idea here before asking my attorney.
You may recall from my previous posts, we have a 1999 Manufactured home sitting on 2 acres of land. Attorney cant "promise" we wont lose it because it is valued at $78,000, and we owe only 57,000, so we are over the exemption by about $1000.00 ($20,000 in GA).
Here is my question. We own the 2 acres of land outright it is NOT included in the financing for the home. The two are in no way related. We financed the home completely by itself.
Can I simply exempt the land outright, it is worth by itself about $5,000.00
The value on the home if it stands by itself wayyyyyy less than what we owe, because it is a 9 year old doublewide, so we would have no equity in the home by itself. Only when you take the land/home combo that it becomes valuable.
What do you think. Would land by itself qualify for an exemption?
Thanks for the help.
You may recall from my previous posts, we have a 1999 Manufactured home sitting on 2 acres of land. Attorney cant "promise" we wont lose it because it is valued at $78,000, and we owe only 57,000, so we are over the exemption by about $1000.00 ($20,000 in GA).
Here is my question. We own the 2 acres of land outright it is NOT included in the financing for the home. The two are in no way related. We financed the home completely by itself.
Can I simply exempt the land outright, it is worth by itself about $5,000.00
The value on the home if it stands by itself wayyyyyy less than what we owe, because it is a 9 year old doublewide, so we would have no equity in the home by itself. Only when you take the land/home combo that it becomes valuable.
What do you think. Would land by itself qualify for an exemption?
Thanks for the help.
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