Sorry in advance for this ignorant question...
Form B22A is quite clear when it comes to the Means Test if you are over the median income (which I am). My monthly disposable income is negative using the IRS standard expenses, but only $-35.63. Thus, I pass the Means Test and presumption of abuse does not arise. But, then I received the UST's Statement of Presumed Abuse...not a good feeling here.
So, if you are over the Median income, but pass the Means Test with a small negative number, what might the UST be looking for in Schedules I and J that would cause the Statement of Presumed Abuse? In other words, how do Schedules I and J map back to the Means Test?
I was really concerned last week about my 401k contribution being the trigger for the Statement of Presumed Abuse. But, we did not use any 401k contribution deduction on the Means Test, just on Schedule I. And when we subtract Schedule I from Schedule J, I have a $-559.93. My attorney has been in court and I am getting answers only from the law clerk at the firm, so I am concerned.
For the more sophisticated folks in this forum, here's what my Statement said,...
"...the UST has determined that: (1) the Debtors' case should be presumed to be an abuse under Section 707(b); and (2) the product of the Debtors' current monthly income, multiplied by 12, is not less than the requirements specified in Section 704(b)(2)(A) or (B)."
It appears that the Statement of Presumed Abuse exists because I am a high wage earner, but it doesn't take into account that I am a huge debt holder, too.
I am just looking for insight here since I can't seem to find any support from anyone other than this forum.
Thanks,
getouttadebt
Form B22A is quite clear when it comes to the Means Test if you are over the median income (which I am). My monthly disposable income is negative using the IRS standard expenses, but only $-35.63. Thus, I pass the Means Test and presumption of abuse does not arise. But, then I received the UST's Statement of Presumed Abuse...not a good feeling here.
So, if you are over the Median income, but pass the Means Test with a small negative number, what might the UST be looking for in Schedules I and J that would cause the Statement of Presumed Abuse? In other words, how do Schedules I and J map back to the Means Test?
I was really concerned last week about my 401k contribution being the trigger for the Statement of Presumed Abuse. But, we did not use any 401k contribution deduction on the Means Test, just on Schedule I. And when we subtract Schedule I from Schedule J, I have a $-559.93. My attorney has been in court and I am getting answers only from the law clerk at the firm, so I am concerned.
For the more sophisticated folks in this forum, here's what my Statement said,...
"...the UST has determined that: (1) the Debtors' case should be presumed to be an abuse under Section 707(b); and (2) the product of the Debtors' current monthly income, multiplied by 12, is not less than the requirements specified in Section 704(b)(2)(A) or (B)."
It appears that the Statement of Presumed Abuse exists because I am a high wage earner, but it doesn't take into account that I am a huge debt holder, too.
I am just looking for insight here since I can't seem to find any support from anyone other than this forum.
Thanks,
getouttadebt

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