Originally posted by aquavir
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The post I was replying to seemed to imply there was some difference between the 1st and 2nd within the BK process, and there simply is not.
The strategy of paying 1st and not 2nd in order to force a cheap settlement of the second - which I am attempting at present - is made possible through the combination of the discharge and low valuation. The latter makes it so the note on the 2nd is effectively worthless, and the former removes the incentive for its holder to foreclose (since they can no longer pursue the deficiency). That's why it has a good chance of working. However, if the holder of both notes is the same bank, then the low valuation does not come into play in the same way - while they still cannot pursue a deficiency, they WILL recover some funds by foreclosing.
...We know we are not liable for our home any longer but we like our home and we have attempted for a very long time now to work with B of A to no avail. Maybe this will get their attention or maybe it will get us booted only time will tell. My husband made the payment on the first yesterday and skipped the second. I imagine in will be at least a couple of weeks before someone takes notice. Since we seem to be the only one in this situation I will keep you all updated on what happens.
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