The means test has you take into account your past 6 months income. For me, that would include a bonus I received in December. On schedule I, it asks for my current income; after a previous post, I'm hesitating to place any future bonus money in the "other" or "future" income field since that will be up in the air at the end of 2007...if the company doesn't do well, I won't receive a bonus. Is my thought process correct on this? I pass abuse on the means test (also I and J comparisons show deficient), but will any questions be brought up as to why my schedule I is lower than the numbers I place in the means test? Most of the cases I've looked at on pacer show both showing exactly the same numbers (though I haven't encountered any bonuses). Appreciate any assistance...
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Bonus Income: Means vs. Schedule I
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Yeah, it might be questioned why your income differs. If expenses differ, that could be because of the difference between allowed and actual expenses - but income should be the same on both Schedule I and the B22 form.DISCLAIMER: I am not an attorney. My posts are not legal advice. They are for information only. Please feel free to use them in an academic sense, as I simply wish to share with you what I have learned/researched.
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