Originally posted by shabam
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) that it is due to fraud, and not merelydetermine what the consumer subjectively intended and therefore whether, deep down, [the debtor] intended to incur a debt without meaning to pay it back".In this case, and as I'll continue to defend, that basis has absolutely nothing to do with the fact it's a balance transfer. It is purely based on fraud or abuse and can be used under any circumstance.
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