I have two mortgages at a value of about 150,000. Home is worth about 110,000. If I foreclose without bankruptcy, what will most likely happen? I would imagine the house would go to auction and sale for much less than we owe. What happens then? Am I responsible for the difference? If not, do taxes have to be paid on any unforgiven debt? I appreciate any feedback.
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Without using the protection of bankruptcy, Mark80 is correct, the lender will persue a deficency judgement.
With regards to the debt forgiveness, this probably isn't just handed to you. I think you would have to prove that you couldn't pay the deficency judegement (i.e., no income or not enough income). If the debt is forgiven, under the newly passed Mortgage Forgiveness Debt Relief Act of 2007, you would not have to pay taxes on said forgiven debt. Here's a link to the IRS: http://www.irs.gov/individuals/artic...179414,00.htmlBankruptcy History:
Chapter 7 filed - 10/12/2005 - Asset
Discharged - 02/16/2006
Case Closed - 11/08/2007
A banker is a fellow who lends you his umbrella when the sun is shining and wants it back the minute it begins to rain ~ Mark Twain
All suggestions are based on personal experience and research and SHOULD NOT be construed as legal advice as I am NOT an attorney. Always consult with competent counsel in your area with regards to your particular situation.
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Depending.. you can do a short sale and check with your lender that they will accept the deficiency (without coming after you for the difference). I've heard in some cases you can still get a taxed on the difference because it's forgiven debt.. but you need to check with your attorney.
Also, I don't think you need to wait for the foreclosure to end before filing BK (you can do BK during the foreclosure process). Of course, I would check with your attorney.Filed C7 12-09-08
Discharged 5-15-09

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