In a recent posting to this forum, the poster claimed to have been able to recover garnished wages for a period of 90 days prior to filing for bankruptcy. My understanding is that the automatic stay is effective on the date of filing and not before.
I have no reason to believe the poster was being less than honest, but this just baffles me. Can someone explain how this is possible?
I have no reason to believe the poster was being less than honest, but this just baffles me. Can someone explain how this is possible?
but if you have enough exemptions it would be kinda nice to have money back from a creditor. Of course you will have to pay your lawyer to get it back, in the case of the first poster it was a % of the total recovered.
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